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Tove K's avatar

I have been thinking of one thing: If IQ evolved a lot during the last thousand years, how can it then be so similar in the whole of Western Europe? Different Western European societies had limited population exchange. Some places were crowded, like England and Germany. Others had a lot of marginal land to explore got those brave, strong and lucky enough to succeed, like Scandinavia. And still, Germans and Scandinavians have more or less identical IQ levels, as far as I know. Even in Spain, so far away and with such a different history (exporting an important share of their population to the colonies in the 16th century when others didn't), have that typical around 100 IQ according to Lynn and Vanhanen's data.

If today's IQ levels evolved so recently, how can they be so similar? Or are there indications that they are not similar after all?

cameron's avatar

You don't seem to show much data for Europeans beyond the Italian polygenic score gradient and a mention of Finns. Is there hard data supporting the idea that in general medieval European polygenic scores suggest low 90s IQ? Have we extensively tested medieval European DNA (preferably thousands of samples)? The narrative of craftsmen being more reproductively successful is interesting but the conclusion is speculative without good data.

The data seems to show the Nubians were very close, genetically, to Egyptians and also had significant west Eurasian admixture.

I believe most American blacks are of equatorial west African origin.

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