Discussion about this post

User's avatar
Tove K's avatar

I have been thinking of one thing: If IQ evolved a lot during the last thousand years, how can it then be so similar in the whole of Western Europe? Different Western European societies had limited population exchange. Some places were crowded, like England and Germany. Others had a lot of marginal land to explore got those brave, strong and lucky enough to succeed, like Scandinavia. And still, Germans and Scandinavians have more or less identical IQ levels, as far as I know. Even in Spain, so far away and with such a different history (exporting an important share of their population to the colonies in the 16th century when others didn't), have that typical around 100 IQ according to Lynn and Vanhanen's data.

If today's IQ levels evolved so recently, how can they be so similar? Or are there indications that they are not similar after all?

Expand full comment
Abel Dean's avatar

Ancient textual sources are necessarily scarce, scattershot, copies of copies of copies, and third-hand, fourth-hand, fifth-hand, and Xth hand. So, if the few ancient sources tell us things about Black Africans that match what we observe among Black Africans today, then we may have no choice but to believe them. If you claim an edit by copyists, then you need a good reason why. Neither Galen nor Ibn Khaldun would be religious sources, the passages are not religious in nature, and copyists in monasteries would be apparently interested merely in preserving ancient knowledge.

Nubians are a respectable example of an ancient advanced Black African civilization. But, they are a people intermediate between caucasoid and negroid. They still exist today: see pictures of Nubians, and you will see what I mean. Go further south, among the true sub-Saharan Africans, and the persisting ancient architecture is scarce, the ancient art is simple, and the ancient written language or ancient domesticated animals are nonexistent.

Expand full comment
36 more comments...

No posts